Who wrote the marital rights laws in Iowa?

deadeyededric

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Dec 12, 2009
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So my buddy has been separated from his wife(not legally) for almost 2 years. His wife actually left him. He bought a place like 1 year ago in Iowa City and is now looking to sell it. His wife never lived there, never paid any equity into the house, and has never even been on the property. How in the **** is she(possibly) legally entitled to some of the money he could potentially get from the a sale in the future. Nobody but the person on the loan should be entitled to that. They had only been married like a year and a half too.
 
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So my buddy has been separated from his wife(not legally) for almost 2 years. His wife actually left him. He bought a place like 1 year ago in Iowa City and is now looking to sell it. His wife never lived there, never paid any equity into the house, and has never even been on the property. How in the **** is she(possibly) legally entitled to some of the money he could potentially get from the sale? A man hating woman clearly wrote this bill because I can almost guarantee you it disproportionately screws over males. Nobody but the person on the loan should be entitled to that. They had only been married like a year and a half too.

Probably because until they divorce both of their assets are viewed as shared. So presumably when he bought the new place it was with those shared assets. Why wouldn't she be entitled to a share of the proceeds?

Likewise if she had won the lottery during the last 2 years he would probably be entitled to his half of that.
 
Probably because until they divorce both of their assets are viewed as shared. So presumably when he bought the new place it was with those shared assets. Why wouldn't she be entitled to a share of the proceeds?

Likewise if she had won the lottery during the last 2 years he would probably be entitled to his half of that.
Why would you presume that? They have no shared assets. Bank account or anything. She had beem living in her own apartment for almost a year before he even bought the place. Her name isn't on the loan or anything. Why the **** would she have a right to what he makes out of the sale? Thats ridiculous.
 
Why would you presume that? They have no shared assets. Bank account or anything. She had beem living in her own apartment for almost a year before he even bought the place. Her name isn't on the loan or anything. Why the **** would she have a right to what he makes out of the sale? Thats ridiculous.
Marriage provides certain legal and financial advantages and protections by design….and they were still legally married
 
Why would you presume that? They have no shared assets. Bank account or anything. She had beem living in her own apartment for almost a year before he even bought the place. Her name isn't on the loan or anything. Why the **** would she have a right to what he makes out of the sale? Thats ridiculous.
Because they are still married and that’s the law? This is pretty open and shut. Why didn’t he get a divorce in the last two years and then this would be a non issue?
 
Why would you presume that? They have no shared assets. Bank account or anything. She had beem living in her own apartment for almost a year before he even bought the place. Her name isn't on the loan or anything. Why the **** would she have a right to what he makes out of the sale? Thats ridiculous.
They were married and never got divorced to determine a split of assets it would seem. Were they just going to stay married forever?
 
So my buddy has been separated from his wife(not legally) for almost 2 years. His wife actually left him. He bought a place like 1 year ago in Iowa City and is now looking to sell it. His wife never lived there, never paid any equity into the house, and has never even been on the property. How in the **** is she(possibly) legally entitled to some of the money he could potentially get from the sale? A man hating woman clearly wrote this bill because I can almost guarantee you it disproportionately screws over males. Nobody but the person on the loan should be entitled to that. They had only been married like a year and a half too.
She would have had to sign for the house he bought a year ago if they were still married, even if they were separated.
 
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Why would you presume that? They have no shared assets. Bank account or anything. She had beem living in her own apartment for almost a year before he even bought the place. Her name isn't on the loan or anything. Why the **** would she have a right to what he makes out of the sale? Thats ridiculous.

Because marital assets are generally viewed as shared even if kept in separate accounts and are divided equitably in divorce.

He should have gotten divorced sooner and not made any major purchases before that.
 
I dont know. He said there was a backlog of divorce proceedings in the state and needed a house.
Your friend is not getting a "fair" deal in the eyes of your general layperson. However, the law is very clear, it has not changed recently and is something he should have absolutely known or consulted any other adult about before buying property. It is open and shut and obvious and it works both ways. Man hating woman..... SMFH